K-SET-2014 Paper III Education


K-SET 2014 Education Paper-III

EDUCATION-III

1. Who said that, “I proudly proclaim, I am an Indian. Every Indian is my brother, the soil of India is my highest heaven, and the good of India is my good”?

(A) Swami Dayanand
(B) Swami Vivekananda
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore

ANSWER: - (B) Swami Vivekananda



2. The cause of bondage, according to Advaita Vedanta is

(A) Ignorance
(B) Fear
(C) Evil
(D) Attachment

ANSWER: - (A) Ignorance



3. From where do the realists get their aims of Education?

(A) Public Interests
(B) Our Traditions
(C) The Church
(D) Great Books
ANSWER: - (A) Public Interests


4. Match List – I with List – II in the following:

    List – I                     List – II

i. Universal               1. Spencer
brotherhood

ii. Scientific               2. Gandhiji
education

iii. Social                   3. Tagore
education

iv. Vardha scheme    4. Vivekananda
of education
                                  5. John Dewey
Codes:
      I     ii    iii    iv
(A) 3    4     1     2
(B) 3    1     2     4
(C) 5    4     1     2
(D) 4    1     5     2

ANSWER: - (D) 4    1     5     2



5. Match List – I with List – II in the following:

 List – I                List – II
a. Plato               i. Education by Development
b. Rousseau       ii. The Republic
c. Froebel           iii. The Discovery of the Child
d. Montessori      iv. Social Contract

Codes:
      a    b    c     d
(A) ii    iii    iv      i
(B) i     ii     iii     iv
(C) ii    iv     i      iii
(D) iv   iii     ii      i
 ANSWER: - (C) ii    iv     i      iii



6. Critically judge the following:

Assertion (A): A sinner suffers from miseries in the world as a result of his own action.
Reason (R): Buddha’s philosophy is stressed on one’s experience or action

Codes:

(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false    
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

ANSWER: - (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)



7. In the idealist’s view, the value of the educational experience depends upon

(A) Whether or not the pupil has been properly motivated
(B) Whether or not it preserves accepted institutions
(C) The extent to which it satisfies pupil desires
(D) The manner in which it affects future Experience

ANSWER: - (B) Whether or not it preserves accepted institutions



8. Mr. Bhatia worked as an accountant in a firm. After few weeks he was made as a purchasing agent and after few months he was made as the director of the same irm. This illustrates:

(A) Ascribed status
(B) Assumed status
(C) Unusual executive ability
(D) Achieved status

ANSWER: - (D) Achieved status



9. Which contributes to acculturation?

(A) A group culture
(B) Values and norms of the group
(C) Man’s capacity to devise a form of conduct
(D) Psychological readiness

ANSWER: - (D) Psychological readiness



10. Arrange the following in the chronological order to describe complete socialization.

1. Education and Sociology
2. School and Society
3. Principles of Educational Sociology: An Outline
4. Dynamic Sociology

Codes:
(A) 3   4   1   2
(B) 4   2   1   3
(C) 2   1   3   4
(D) 1   2   4   3
 ANSWER: - (B) 4   2   1   3


11. Critically judge the following:

Assertion (A): Social change is only a part of cultural change.
Reason (R): Cultural changes take place because of social change.

Codes:
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

ANSWER: - (B) (A) is true but (R) is false



12. James Lange theory of emotions reported that the first phase of emotional activity is

(A) Insight
(B) Sensitivity to environmental stimulus
(C) The explicit response to the stimulus
(D) Sensitivity to internal stimulus

ANSWER: - (C) The explicit response to the stimulus


13. If children are exposed to frequent rejections, punishment, teasing and versolicitude by parents, usually it leads to

(A) Inferiority feelings
(B) Brain disorders
(C) Suicide
(D) Mental retardation
ANSWER: - (A) Inferiority feelings


14. A college student who often performs better in simple condition situation belongs to the group having

(A) No anxiety
(B) Higher anxiety
(C) No emotional significance
(D) Low anxiety

ANSWER: - (D) Low anxiety



15. Analogies test is used to measure

(A) Imagination
(B) Specific ability
(C) Aptitude
(D) Intelligence

ANSWER: - (D) Intelligence


16. Creativity increases with

(A) Age
(B) Education
(C) Practice
(D) Experience

ANSWER: - (C) Practice



17. Intelligence is the essence of

(A) Introverted abilities
(B) Critical abilities
(C) Inherited abilities
(D) Intelligentsia
ANSWER: - (B) Critical abilities


18. What is a research describing developmental changes in personality characteristics by studying the same group at different age levels?

(A) Departmental study
(B) Trend study
(C) Longitudinal growth study
(D) Cross sectional growth study

ANSWER: - (C) Longitudinal growth study



19. Learning is a sort of behavioural

(A) Modification
(B) Withdrawal
(C) Continuation
(D) Extension

 ANSWER: - (A) Modification



20. Find out the correct arrangement about the steps involved in reasoning.

1. Taking a decision
2. Investigation
3. Examination
4. Realization of the problem
5. Formulation of hypothesis

Codes:
(A) 5    4    2    1    3
(B) 4    3    2    5    1
(C) 5    4    1    3    2
(D) 1    3    2    4    5

ANSWER: - (B) 4    3    2    5    1



21. Internal factors of growth and development involves

I. Heredity factors
II. Emotional factors
III. Environmental factors
IV. Educational and vocational facilities

Codes:
(A) I and III are correct
(B) III and IV are correct
(C) I and II are correct
(D) II and IV are correct

ANSWER: - (C) I and II are correct



22. Find out the correct statements about prominent factors affecting learning.

I. Readiness and will power
II. Basic potential of the learner
III. Physical and mental health
IV. Environment condition

Codes:
(A) I   and   II    are correct
(B) III and   IV   are correct
(C) I, II and   III   are correct
(D) II   and   III   are correct
 ANSWER: - (C) I, II and   III   are correct


23. Match List – I with List – II in the following:

     List – I                          List – II
I. Stop with maturity         1. Environment
II. Progressive series       2. Development
III. Inborn trait                   3. Growth
IV. External forces            4. Adjustment
                                          5. Heredity
Codes:

      I     II     III    IV
(A) 1    2      3     4
(B) 3    2      1     4
(C) 4    3      1     5
(D) 4    1      2     5

ANSWER: - (B) 3    2      1     4



24. Match List – I with List – II in the following:

       List – I                                   List – II
I. Verbal reasoning   test          1. Attitude scale
II. California Psychological       2. Interest
    Inventory
III. Semantic differential test     3. Aptitude test
IV. The Kuder Performance      4. Personality
      record                                  5. Achievement test

Codes:
      I      II    III    IV
(A) 3     4     1     2
(B) 3     2     1     4
(C) 4     3     1     5
(D) 4     1     2     5
ANSWER: - (A) 3     4     1     2



25. Critically judge the following:

Assertion (A): Personality is an individual’s consistent adjustment to his environment.
Reason (R): Adjustment is a social process.

Codes:
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

ANSWER: - (B) (A) is true but (R) is false


26. Critically judge the following:

Assertion (A): Heredity is responsible for all the acquired traits.
Reason (R): Human behaviour is determined by interaction of heredity and environment.

Codes:
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

ANSWER: - (A) (A) is false but (R) is true


27. Who developed youth inventory?

(A) Remers
(B) Rogers
(C) Watson
(D) Freeman

ANSWER: - (C) Watson



28. What is a conscious process?

(A) Suppression
(B) Frustration
(C) Aggression
(D) Displacement

ANSWER: - (A) Suppression




29. A healthy and stable personality is indicated by

(A) Id and Super-ego dominating Ego
(B) Super-ego dominating Id and Ego
(C) Ego and Super-ego dominating Id
(D) Ego dominating Id and Super-ego

ANSWER: - (B) Super-ego dominating Id and Ego



30. When an investigator uses two or more variables in combination to predict a single variable, the investigator has to use

(A) Multiple correlations, R 1.23
(B) Rank order correlation
(C) Partial correlation, r 12.3
(D) Product moment correlation, r
ANSWER: - (A) Multiple correlations, R 1.23


31. A hypothesis is never proved, but merely retained or rejected only tentatively is

(A) A fact not accepted by all
(B) A misconception
(C) A correct and valid statement
(D) A wrong assumption about hypothesis

ANSWER: - (C) a correct and valid statement




32. Arrange the following steps of historical research:

1. Criticism of data
2. Reporting of finding
3. Collection of data
4. Formulation of hypothesis
5. Selection of the problem

Codes:
(A) 5   4   1   2    3
(B) 4   5   1   2    3
(C) 5   4   3   1    2
(D) 5   4   1   3    2

ANSWER: - (C) 5   4   3   1    2



33. Test of significance means

(A) Correct acceptance of the null hypothesis
(B) Correct rejection of the null hypothesis
(C) Incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis
(D) Incorrect acceptance of the null Hypothesis

ANSWER B) Correct rejection of the null hypothesis



34. “Sampling frame” means

(A) Fixing the sample size
(B) Defining and selecting sample unit
(C) Identification of target and accessible population
(D) Preparing a complete list of the units of a finite population for drawing a sample

ANSWER: - (D) Preparing a complete list of the units of a finite population for drawing a sample



35. The ‘case study’ is the study of a

(A) Single group
(B) Single individual
(C) Single community and family
(D) Single unit done intensively to bring out the processes and dynamics underlying its problems and functioning

ANSWER: - (D) Single unit done intensively to bring out the processes and dynamics underlying its problems and functioning



36. Qualitative analysis is not at all used in

(A) Descriptive research
(B) Ethnographical research
(C) Experimental research
(D) Historical research
 ANSWER: - (C) Experimental research


37. Which is not described the Kerlinger as a method of controlling extraneous variables?

(A) Purposive sampling
(B) Selection
(C) Randomization
(D) Matching

 ANSWER: - (A) Purposive sampling



38. Find out the correct arrangement about the steps involved in problem solving.

1. Evolving the possible solution
2. Formulation of possible solution
3. Testing solution
4. Collecting information
5. Understanding the problem

Codes:
(A) 5  4 2   1   3
(B) 4  5  1   2   3
(C) 5  4  1   3   2
(D) 1  3  2   4   5
ANSWER: - (A) 5 4 2   1   3


39. Read the following statements:

I. The table value of one tailed test is lower than two tailed test irrespective of level of significance.
II. The table value of one tailed test is higher than two tailed test irrespective of level of significance.
III. Then sum of square value can be negative as well as positive depending upon the value of correcting factor.
IV. Then sum of square value is always positive irrespective of the value of correction factor.
Out of the above statements which one is correct?

 Codes:
(A) I and II are correct
(B) III and IV are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) II, III and IV are correct

ANSWER: - (C) I, II and III are correct




40. Arrange the following measures of variability in a sequence.

1. Standard deviation
2. Range
3. Qualitative deviation
4. Average deviation

Codes:
(A) 1   4   3    2
(B) 2   3   4    1
(C) 2   4   3    1
(D) 1   3   4    2
ANSWER: - (C) 2   4   3    1


41. Out of the following statements which is the correct statement?

I. Historical research uses criticism as a technique to test the data.
II. Correlation studies have low validity.
III. Findings of an experimental study can be reverified.
IV. Randomization procedures in experimental designs provide sufficient experimental control.

Codes:
(A) All the above four statements are correct
(B) Only statements II, III and IV are correct
(C) Only statements II and IV are correct
(D) Only statements I, II and III are correct

ANSWER: - (B) Only statements II, III and IV are correct



42. Match List – I with List – II in the following:

     List – I                           List – II
I. Testing directional          1. Biserial correlation
Hypothesis
II. The probability of            2. Type – I error
the null hypothesis
 III. Probability of                 3. One tailed test
Incorrect rejection of null
 Hypothesis
IV. One variable is                4. Level of significance
continuous and other is
dichotomized
                                              5. Two tailed test
Codes:
      I     II    III    IV
(A) 5    1     2     3
(B) 3    1     2     4
(C) 3    4     2     1
(D) 4    3     2     5
ANSWER: - (C) 3    4     2     1



43. Match List – I with List – II in the following:
  
    List – I                      List – II
I. Scale                        1. Gathering information
II. Questionnaire          2. Forecasting strategies
III. Schedule                3. Explanatory
document
IV. Inventories              4. Ratio scale
                                     5. Psychological test
Codes:
      I      II     III     IV
(A) 4      1     2      3
(B) 4      1     3     2
(C) 4      5     3     1
(D) 4      1     5     3

ANSWER: - (A) 4      1     2      3



44. Critically judge the following:

Assertion (A): Hypothesis is a powerful tool in research process.
Reason (R): Hypothesis gives direction.

Codes:
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

ANSWER: - (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)



 45. ‘The period of 1900-1935 is called as traditional era in educational administration.’ is said by

(A) Kimbrough
(B) John Dewey
(C) Majumdar
(D) F. W. Taylor

ANSWER: - (A) Kimbrough



46. The Father of Scientific Management is

(A) Henry Frederick
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Frederick W. Taylor

 ANSWER: - (D) Frederick W. Taylor


47. PERT means

(A) Programme Evaluation Right Teaching
(B) Process Enquiry Research Technique
(C) Programme Evaluation Review Technique
(D) Problem of Evaluation Report Technique

 ANSWER: - (C) Programme Evaluation Review Technique



48. The main principle of the management is

(A) Distraction of labour
(B) Division of labour
(C) Double the labour
(D) Diversion of labour
ANSWER: - (B) Division of labour


49. “A programme of curriculum improvement must bring about many important changes within persons and within elements constituting the setting for learning” is said by

(A) Kimball Wiles
(B) M. C. Nerney
(C) S. N. Mukerji
(D) Barr, Burton and Brueckner

 ANSWER: - (D) Barr, Burton and Brueckner



50. Sequence of the following steps in the cyclic process of evaluation is

a. Feedback
b. Instructional method
c. Objectives
d. Evaluation

(A) b     c     a    d
(B) c     b     a    d
(C) c     b     d    a
(D) b     a    c     d

 ANSWER:- (C)    c     b     d    a


51. Find Ʃfx, when mean is 55 and N is 8

(A) 440
(B) 63
(C) 47
(D) 6.87

ANSWER: - (A) 440



52. Which of the following is odd one?

(A) Curricular validity
(B) Sampling validity
(C) Logical validity
(D) Construct validity
ANSWER: - (B) Sampling validity


53. In a normal probability curve the value of skewness is

(A) 0
(B) –1 to +1
(C) 0.263
(D) 10000

ANSWER: - (A) 0



54. _________ is used in the determination
of standard deviation.

(A) Median
(B) Percentile
(C) Mean
(D) Mode

ANSWER: - (C) Mean



55. The square of Pearson’s product moment correlation is known as

(A) Coefficient of variation
(B) Coefficient of determination
(C) Phi coefficient
(D) Contingency coefficient

ANSWER: - (B) Coefficient of determination



56. “The New Industrial State” book is written by

(A) J. K. Galbretch
(B) E. L. Thorndike
(C) Guilford
(D) Karl Marx
ANSWER: - (A) J. K. Galbretch


57. “Educational Technology is the application of scientific knowledge about learning and conditions of learning to improve the effectiveness of teaching and training” is said by

(A) R. A. Cox
(B) Richmond
(C) Leth
(D) Robert M. Gagne

 ANSWER: - (C) Leth



58. The educational technology is important for

(A) Attracting students to the schools
(B) The benefits of teaching
(C) The equalization of educational opportunities
(D) The developments of new strategies in education

ANSWER: - (D) The developments of new strategies in education




59. According to Philip Jackson three phases of teaching are

(A) (a) Pre-active phase (b) Interactive phase (c) Post-active phase
(B) (a) Motivation phase (b) Development phase (c) Evaluation phase
(C) (a) Playing phase (b) Meditation phase (c) Recapitulation phase
(D) (a) Recapitulation phase (b) Evaluation phase (c) Home work phase

ANSWER: - (A) (a) Pre-active phase (b) Interactive phase (c) Post-active phase



60. Match the following:

   Set – I                         Set – II
(Multimedia               (Functions)
 Approach)
a. C.C. T.V.              1. Centre for mass media for in-service
                                     Teacher education
b. SITE                     2. Non-formal medium
c. CET                      3. One-way communication
d. TV                        4. Suits the needs of children of primary and pre-                  
                                   primary age group
Codes:
      a     b    c    d
(A) 4     1    2    3
(B) 3     4    1    2
(C) 1     2    3    4
(D) 2     3    4    1

ANSWER: - (B) 3     4    1    2



61. Exceptionality of visual impairedness is typically defined as visual acuity of ft 200 20 or less

(A) Social concept
(B) Qualitative concept
(C) Statistical concept
(D) Medical concept
ANSWER: - (C) Statistical concept
                    (D) Medical concept


62. When the children are treated by their peers, mates and teachers in a prejudiced manner, they become

(A) Learning disabled
(B) Mentally retarded
(C) Maladjusted
(D) Emotionally disordered

ANSWER: - (D) Emotionally disordered



63. Match the following:

   Set – I                            Set – II
a. Moderately            1. Problem of
retarded                        deviance is very significant

b. Profoundly             2. Only special
handicapped                attention is enough
or gifted                        in order to bring
                                     them to normal
c. Mildly                     3. I. Q. is between
retarded                         25-50

d. Severely                4. Highest degree of
retarded                        deviation from
                                      the mean
Codes:
      A    b    c    d
(A) 1     3    2    4
(B) 2     4    1    3
(C) 3     2    4    1
(D) 4     1    3    2
 ANSWER: - (B) 2     4    1    3


64. The correct sequence of historical development of special education is

1. Focus of efforts changed from care or rehabilitation of physically handicapped to their permanent segregation from the majority community
2. State department of special education was established in several countries
3. Several public and private schools for handicapped were first established in America and France
4. International Council for the Education of Exceptional Children(ICEC) established

(A) 3   2   1   4
(B) 2   3   4   1
(C) 3   1   2   4
(D) 2   3   1   4

ANSWER: - (C) 3   1   2   4



65. The latest recommendation to special education

(A) Segregation
(B) Inclusive
(C) Special schools
(D) Residential schools
ANSWER: - (B) Inclusive




66. Formal teacher training in India begin during

(A) Vedic period
(B) Medieval period
(C) Buddhist period
(D) British period

ANSWER: - (D) British period




67. Monitory system of preparing a teacher existed during

(A) Buddhist period
(B) British period
(C) Muslim period
(D) Vedic period

 ANSWER: - (A) Buddhist period




68. Which of the following are objectives of NCTE?

I. To advise Govt. of India on preservice teacher education only.
II. To advise Govt. of India on inservice teacher education only.
III. To advise Govt. of India on both preservice and inservice teacher education.
IV. To advise Govt. of India on ensuring students in teacher education.

(A) I, IV
(B) II, IV
(C) III, IV
(D) III, I
ANSWER: - (A) I, IV



69. Which of the following commissions strongly recommended the provision of summer institutes for in-service teacher education?

(A) Secondary Education Commission
(B) University Education Commission
(C) Saddler Commission
(D) Education Commission

 ANSWER: - (D) Education Commission



70. Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on your understanding of the passage.

Communication is the key stone of education. It is the process of exchange. It is derives from a Greek word “Communis” which means “to make common”. The early meaning of communication is derived from Latin word
“Communicare”. Communicare also means “to make common”. Thus ‘com’ means having a  common experience with other people. Communication is a process of give and take of ideas which blend into a mutual understanding of a theory, principle or fact. Communication is a process of transmission of information from the sender to the receiver and vice-versa. It means getting across ideas and information to another person. According to John Dewey “Communication is a process of sharing experience till it becomes a common possession”. Effective Communication is a two way process including feedback and interaction. Communication involves interaction which involves give and take. Communication is chief means of teaching learning process. Communication process involves three things, sender, receiver and content. Aristotle said that Communication is a means of presentation to influence the other,  so that the desired effect is achieved. The dictionary meaning of “Intra” is within and “Inter” is between or among. Inter personal Communication means the Communication that takes place between two or more person, here the sender and receiver is two people. There are two basic approaches that define interpersonal Communication. One approach includes all the ways in which people influence each other. The other approach believes that Communication should be limited only to the intentional interaction that takes place with the help of symbols. On the other hand, inter Communication means the Communication
that takes place within the individual, here the sender and the receiver is the same person. When a person faces a problem, he wants to solve the problem. In that way, some interaction takes place within himself.



70. What is the meaning of Communication?

(A) Two way process of feedback and interaction
(B) One way process of interaction
(C) Two way process of transmission of information
(D) Three way process of providing information

ANSWER: - (A) Two way process of feedback and interaction


71. Intrapersonal Communication means

(A) Between
(B) Interrelated
(C) Among
(D) Within

ANSWER: - (D) Within



72. The word “Communis” means

(A) To have common experience
(B) To relate
(C) To make common
(D) To interact
ANSWER: - (C) To make common



73. The process of Communication involves

(A) Knowledge
(B) Content
(C) Instruction
(D) Information

 ANSWER: - (B) Content


74. Interpersonal Communication is where

(A) Sender and receiver are only two person
(B) Sender and receiver is the same person
(C) Sender and receiver are more than one person
(D) Sender and receiver are two or more person

ANSWER: - (D) Sender and receiver are two or more person



75. “Communication is a process of sharing experience till it becomes a common”.

(A) Comenius
(B) Pestalozzi
(C) Aristotle
(D) John Dewey

ANSWER: - (D) John Dewey



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